Re: [tied] Latin medial voicing of *p,*k & *t before penultimate?

Me, on the idea I proposed:

>Am I wrong?

Miguel:

>Yes.

At least try to justify why before being so absolute in your evaluation.

>Same in quadra/quadrus, quadri- etc. This is a special development of *tr.
>I've seen it attributed to the schwa secundum before it, but also to the
>/w/. Accent plays a role (*kWtwr�s > quadrus, *kWtw�:r > quattuor), but
>I'm afraid I've forgotten the details.

But I just _said_ that accent played a role in my idea! And from what you
give above, we find these voiceless stops _preceding_ accent, just as I
suggest,
although not using a penultimate accent but the original mobile accent in
PIE.

>Final stops do get voiced in Latin.

But why exactly? Why can't it be part of a larger rule. If /quadra:ginta:/
clearly shows _medial_ voicing, then why can't both final voicing and medial
voicing be part of the same process?

>It's unclear to me whether you're talking about the Latin accent
>(determined by syllable weight), the pre-Latin accent (initial) or the PIE
>accent. Whatever the case, just open a Latin dictionary and let the
>counterexamples leap up at you.

As far as I know, the pre-Latin accent is only suspected to be initial, not
entirely proven though. I'd imagine that if the Latin accent happened to
be quasi-penultimate as it seemed to be, that the underlying system
must be a stricter penultimate accent. So I would dare suggest for
discussion the following alternative possibility:

mobile > penultimate > quasi-penultimate (mixed accent)



= gLeN

_________________________________________________________________
Add photos to your e-mail with MSN 8. Get 2 months FREE*.
http://join.msn.com/?page=features/photos&pgmarket=en-ca&RU=http%3a%2f%2fjoin.msn.com%2f%3fpage%3dmisc%2fspecialoffers%26pgmarket%3den-ca