From: Miguel Carrasquer
Message: 27252
Date: 2003-11-16
>Your fem. sab`ú: agrees exactly with Brockelmann's fem. form. TheThat's impossible, because Arabic -un normally corresponds to Ge'ez -0.
>masc. (which I referred to as feminine in my posting for reasons we
>all know) is given as sab`atú: by Br., and as sab`atu: by Grande
>without accent marking, but with a long final vowel (B.M.Grande,
>Vvedenie v sravnitel'noe izuc^enie semitskix jazykov, M. 1972). In
>both forms the -ú: corresponds to Arabic -un.
>By Sarauw's rule a structure *sab`atum should have accent on *-úm. IBecause mimation and nunation do _not_ affect the place of the stress.
>do not understand why you explicitly apply the rule to mean accent
>on -át-.
>Is Brockelmann's accent marking wrong? If so, why did heI hope you don't mean in Arabic, where the stress is sáb`un (and the -un
>give it? The rule seems to work fine in the fem., which corresponds
>to Arabic sab`un and has indeed accented the reflex of -u- + final
>nasal.