From: alex
Message: 26893
Date: 2003-11-05
> 04-11-03 21:36, alex wrote:that was no onjection; that was the explanaition why "împãca" is
>
>> Of course it could not be derived from Latin "pax" or from "pacis"
>> because there is no way of getting "-ca" at the end, thus it was
>> supposed already the "-ca" in the joker which is the Vulgare Latin.
>
> It's a ridiculous objection. There are few things more productive that
> the formation of verbs in -a:- in Latin.
>I would agree with you that there in /cio/ is no /i/ and the phonologic
>> The problem which I have in this case is with "sorrë" and "cioarã; on
>> your idea there should have been an *k^wore for having the actual
>> Rom. and Alb. words; does it works? Only with the condition "k^w" >
>> "cio" and that will mean the /k^/ have had an kind of frontvowel,
>> something which allowed to become actual "c^" for giving later the
>> Alb. "s".
>
> *k^w > PAlb. *c^ > Alb. s no matter if a front vowel follows or not.
> Apparently the satemised stop itself was sufficiently palatal. As for
> the <i> in <cioa> (/c^oa/), it's only orthographic and doesn't
> represent a separate segment.
>I will do . Prior to this I will give today in the evning a little
>> I have a bad feeling that one of the languages of the Balkans have
>> changed the old /p/, /t/, /k/ in /b/,/d/,/g/ but we don'T know to
>> name it ( illirian, thracian?) either we know in which exactly
>> conditions this happened. Or it was the /bh/, /dh/, /gh/ which
>> undergone this shift to /p/, /t/, /k/ ? Stil a lot of fog here. I
>> guess I have to re-read a bit about Deçev's suggestions on this
>> aspect. I have had this idea when we spoked about "ognis" and the
>> "bher-" root. You accentuated now this feeling that there should be
>> done some more research.
>
> Wake up, Alex. Your bad feeling is a nightmare -- a condition of your
> own imagination.
>
> Piotr