Re: [tied] Almost perfect [was: verb agreement in one stage of Engl

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Miguel Carrasquer <mcv@...> wrote:

> On Sun, 12 Oct 2003 17:17:25 +0000, aquila_grande <aquila_grande@...>
> wrote:
>
> >I think it is interesting to trace how far back in time the origin
> >of the combination auxiliary + perf.part goes. I think it
> >originates from proto-IE itself.

> Of course no verb "to have" can be reconstructed for PIE
>(so the have-stative or -perfective cannot be
> traced back to PIE.

Along with the fact that Indo-Iranian languages generally use a
nominal form, generally not having a verb that denotes possession. And
the fact that in RV and early Brahmana prose, the -ta adjective
denotes current state and does not show any special gramaticalization
over that of nominal sentences with other kinds of adjectives.