From: Miguel Carrasquer
Message: 26393
Date: 2003-10-12
>I think it is interesting to trace how far back in time the originI think the Latin "weak" perfects in -v- actually do reflect a periphrastic
>of the combination auxiliary + perf.part goes. I think it originates
>from proto-IE itself. You find the combination in nearly all
>branches of IE. I also think that the exact meaning of this
>combination as in Germanic may go far back in time (something
>occured in the past that still has a present significance).
>
>The most usual and probably oldest form is the verb to be (h1es-) +
>active pef.part (Agreeing with intransitive subj. or trans. obj).
>The agreement in these two instances are actully equivalent, since
>the subject of an intransitive action usually also is physically the
>object of the same action.
>
>In Latin and Germanic the combination was lost for active transitive
>verbs, since latin/germanic do not have any active perf.part with
>transitive meaning.
>The use of to have, I think was forced from the need for fillingThe "have" construction is present in Hittite as well (nu-za-kan GU4 kunan
>this gap.