From: Abdullah Konushevci
Message: 26271
Date: 2003-10-07
--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "alex" <alxmoeller@...> wrote:
> elmeras2000 wrote:
>
> >>
> >>
> >> Huh? I am afraid I did not understood too much. Do you mean that
> > aj/ajo
> >> < PIE *so-/*saH via *so > gjo >jo > ajo and that the plural
forms
> > of
> >> aj/ajo are from PIE accusative form of the demonstrative
pronouns,
> > thus
> >> aj/ajo are not the basis for plural forms ata/ato?
> >
> > Not quite. The Albanian demonstrative pronouns ky and aí are
> > juxtapositions (Zusammenrückungen) of two words each, the second
> > part being in both cases the pronoun which is PIE *so-/*to-. That
> > pronoun is identical with the Albanian (and Greek) definite
article.
> > So, yes, I do say that the -jo part of the form ajó is from IE
*saH2
> > (via *sa: and probably *gjo before weakening to -jo). The forms
> > without /t/ (or its reflex) are nominative singular masc. and
fem.,
> > so ajo is definitely not from an accusative. The rest of the
> > paradigm had forms beginning with /t-/, as seen in the second part
> > of nom.-acc.pl. masc. atá, fem. ató. I do not know what the first
> > part of the two pronouns is.
> >
> > Jens
>
> Thank you Jens. I will think about this posibility too. I say "this
> posiblity" because there can be one another if not more as two; one
of
> them I will put to discution here at the end of the message.
>
> To the Alb. "ky" (this). You mean should be a justaposition of two
> words. Which should be the words here?
>
> To the definite article in Albanian.The definite mark is made in
Alb.
> with the help of following markers:
> msc. sg: -i, -u
> fem. sg: -a
> neutrum sg: -t, -të
>
> all pl: -t, -të
>
> You mean that aj/ajo should be identical with wich one of the
definite
> markers here?
>
> Now the first part of aj/ajo, the "a" there. One observe that in
Rom. is
> too this "a" in the demonstrative pronoun "ãl/ãla"(msc. sg.),
> "aia"(fem.sg), "ãia"(msc. pl), "alea" (fem.pl).We have to keep in
mind
> that the pronoun of 3 pers. in Alb. is once personal pronoun and
second
> demonstrative pronoun. Thus we have once the phonetical form alike
to
> Romanian and the semantic aspect like in Romanian : "aj"
versus "ãl/ãla"
> (he), "ajo" versus "aia"(she)
>
> On the basis of these observation I will put to discution -as I
said-
> the follwing:
>
> -on the acount of accepted Latin familia > Alb. fëmëje, one cannot
> ignore that
> this "j" in aj/ajo can be the reflex of "lV" where V="e,i,j".
>
> -f one think that in Rom. an another set of demonstrative pronoun
is for
> 3 pers sg. ãla/aia (masc/fem), maybe they (Alb/Rom) have related
aspects
> here too. Of course I
> have trouble with the plural form since in Rom. the plural is
ãia/alea
> comparative with Alb. ato/ata. For the "t" here in ato/ata I was
playing
> with the thoughts that the plural marker in Albanian which is "t/të"
> played any role here. Opinions?
>
>
> Alex