[tied] Re: Albanian, pronouns,plural

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "alex" <alxmoeller@...> wrote:

> elmeras2000 wrote:
> > That's one of the places Albanian shows its IE origin at the
> > clearest: it's the demonstrative pronoun *so, *saH2, *tód, acc.
> > *tóm, *táH2m, *tód, etc.: Just like Germanic, Greek, Indo-Iranian
> > and Tocharian, Albanian faithfully reflects the IE paradigm in

which

> > only the nom.sg. masc. and fem. begin with *s- while all other

forms

> > have an initial *t-. In Albanian, the reflex of /s/ is lost in

the

> > weakly stressed words, but not always quite: The reflex of *s- is
> > expected to be gj-, and in some of the forms we find /j-/ instead
> > which looks like a reduced form of it, as nom.sg.fem.

jonë 'unsere',

> > presumably from *saH2 + *nos. The t-forms have mainly kept

the /t/

> > down to the present day, but some of the forms have combined

the /t/

> > with a /y/ emerging later in the word (mostly out of *-sy-) and

thus

> > show up with /s-/.
> >
> > Jens
>
>
> Huh? I am afraid I did not understood too much. Do you mean that

aj/ajo

> < PIE *so-/*saH via *so > gjo >jo > ajo and that the plural forms

of

> aj/ajo are from PIE accusative form of the demonstrative pronouns,

thus

> aj/ajo are not the basis for plural forms ata/ato?

Not quite. The Albanian demonstrative pronouns ky and aí are
juxtapositions (Zusammenrückungen) of two words each, the second
part being in both cases the pronoun which is PIE *so-/*to-. That
pronoun is identical with the Albanian (and Greek) definite article.
So, yes, I do say that the -jo part of the form ajó is from IE *saH2
(via *sa: and probably *gjo before weakening to -jo). The forms
without /t/ (or its reflex) are nominative singular masc. and fem.,
so ajo is definitely not from an accusative. The rest of the
paradigm had forms beginning with /t-/, as seen in the second part
of nom.-acc.pl. masc. atá, fem. ató. I do not know what the first
part of the two pronouns is.

Jens