I know this has been stripped of some of its context, but scholarly
assertions should be be healthy enough to survive that. I am not
afraid of any smear tactics, the matter is far too clear for that.
ALL language-endowed humans can interbreed, so if there is no
language it is a different species. That speaks very strongly
against any claim that linguistic differences are biological in
their causation.
Why do sound systems change? Because the sounds change - phonetics
precedes phonemics. Why changes at all? That's fashion, nothing
else. Surely you do not assume there is a biological foundation to
the changes in clothing, do you? So, keep biology out of phonetic
change.
Jens
--- In
cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Patrick C. Ryan" <proto-
language@...> wrote:
> I have suspected for some time that changing phonology may be
related to changing genetic compositions of a given population.
>
> When I pursued this question on another list, I also got the knee-
jerk reaction of 'racism' from some listmembers, the others being
reluctant to express their opinions for fear of the same smear
tactics.
>
> But the simple facts are that NO ONE has yet been able to
satisfactorily explain why sound systems change.
>