From: Miguel Carrasquer
Message: 25353
Date: 2003-08-26
>>Why should Proto-Kartvelian speakers have had considerations forNo. All that's necessary is for them to have pronounced it differently.
>>markedness issues in PIE phonology? The allophone of /k/ before
>>/t/ is necessarily front, nothing to do with satem.
>
>Alright, so you're saying that Kartvelians couldn't pronounce *k
>before *t, is that it?
>Kartvelian had no such allophone of *k and we knowNo we don't. We know it had front allophones, otherwise there never would
>that IE *k was plain and non-palatal.