From: Miguel Carrasquer
Message: 24900
Date: 2003-07-30
>>*&1 is a syllabic laryngeal. It wasDo you mean *h1smén ([hsmén] or [?smén])?
>>there before the breakup of PIE.
>
>Undoubtedly you are, as always, right. But can you prove it? Can you show
>that *&1smen did not have an initial consonant cluster, simplified within
>each daughter language?