Re: [tied] nominative plural

Sorry to bother you again with a naive question, but would -o:z be
pronounced with a long o - ohz/oez, and was the z originally an s? And
does the i in parentheses you mention in -an-(i)z, was that added later?

-Michael

On Sun, 22 Jun 2003 23:40:02 +0200 Piotr Gasiorowski
<piotr.gasiorowski@...> writes:

> 22-06-03 22:02, Michael J Smith wrote:
>
> > is -ar Germanic nominative plural equivalent to Latin -i, thus
> Germanic
> > Suevar, Cheruscar, etc.?
>
> No, <-ar> is its Old Norse reflex, with rhotacism (-z > -r). The
> proto-Germanic ending was *-o:z ~ -o:s < PIE *-o-es
>
> And how would names ending in -ones have been
> > said in Germanic, as in Semnones, Gotones, etc.?
>
> PGmc. *-an-(i)z > Goth. -ans, OE -an
>
> Piotr
>
>
> ------------------------ Yahoo! Groups Sponsor
>
>
>
> Your use of Yahoo! Groups is subject to
> http://docs.yahoo.com/info/terms/
>
>
>

________________________________________________________________
The best thing to hit the internet in years - Juno SpeedBand!
Surf the web up to FIVE TIMES FASTER!
Only $14.95/ month - visit www.juno.com to sign up today!