Re: [tied] az+

> From: Piotr Gasiorowski [mailto:piotr.gasiorowski@...]

>Couldn't it be simply an irregular
> reduction of a frequently used grammatical function word (*é:z'aN >
> *é:z' > *ez'), not unlike jaz > ja(:) in Slavic or Old English <ic> >
> Middle English <i>?
>

But wasn't the use of the word mostly emphatic in PIE (and Proto-Baltic,
in distinction from the situation in Middle English), since it was (and
still is in, eg., Lithuanian) superfluous as to the grammatical
information it carried? An emphatic thing is not what you use frequently
and tend to reduce, is it?

Sergei