From: Brian M. Scott
Message: 24206
Date: 2003-07-05
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Brian M. Scott"[snip <eggys> and <eyren>]
> <BMScott@...> wrote:
>> At 5:41:23 AM on Saturday, July 5, 2003, tgpedersen
>> wrote:
>>> Perhaps this example can shed some on what I mean.
>>> This is from a preface Caxton wrote to a book he
>>> printed:
> BTW the languages of the records of the North GermanOf course there's a connection, though that's obviously not
> cities switch from Low German to High German within the
> scope of twenty years in the 16th century. At the same
> time as the Hanse finally declines. Don't tell me there's
> no connection here.
>>> Note some of my favorite hobby-horses: The mercer, whoNo. You should also have re-read what I wrote: 'perfectly
>>> is used to trading, uses plural -s, the wyfe is not
>>> indifferent but indignant that someone should speak to
>>> her using plural -s
>> This is a considerable misrepresentation of the passage.
>> The difference between <egges> and <eyren> goes far
>> beyond the nature of the plural inflexion. We are not
>> told that the wife was indignant at all; the merchant was
>> angry because his perfectly good English (from his point
>> of view) had been dismissed as incomprehensible French.
> Right, I should have re-read the story. But obviously, the
> merchant's English is only perfectly good in hindsight;
> given alternative political developments, -eren might haveNot by anyone who knew anything about the history of the
> survived in English, and the merchant would now stand
> condemned (and also by you) as the speaker of a corrupt,
> French-influenced substandard dialect that didn't make it.
>>> You might even interpret the story to mean that as lateThere's nothing in the story to contradict the notion that
>>> as in Caxton's time, people in England used one language
>>> at home and another, more regular one in the market.
>> Whether any of them did or not, there's nothing in
>> Caxton's story that suggests such an interpretation.
> And there's nothing to contradict it.
>>> I know that traditionally -s plural is considered aI see both, of course. This is not a problem. That you see
>>> Northern thing,
>> Naturally: it is. And since the Northern dialects of Old
>> English lost word-final /n/, generalizing the <-es>
>> plural made good sense, especially after word-final schwa
>> also dropped.
> The problem with your analysis is that you see language
> development as something autonomous, while I see it as
> driven by other factors.
> Thus in a total description of the historical situationOckham has nothing to say on the subject.
> (not just linguistic), Occam would be in my favor.
>>> but that's also where the markets (and Norse villages)Not really. The wool ports were Newcastle-upon-Tyne, Hull,
>>> were.
>> There were markets all over -- probably more in the
>> south, given the distribution of population. London was
>> the only city of any size even in the late 15th century.
> But the Northern markets is where the Hanse traders went
> to buy wool.
> Thus you would have more linguistic diversity on theThe timing doesn't work: the Hanse are too late.
> market, and more motivation to use a 'least common
> denominator' language to communicate (as Scandinavians
> do).