[m_iacomi] One can suppose very well that a part of X speakers became
Romanized while another part tenaciously resisted. Are there any linguistical or
historical arguments pointing towards complete Romanization of X speakers and
tenacious resistence
opposed by X' speakers (> Basque)?!
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[davius] I think the evidence support that Roman State was not
specially interested in any sort of "linguistical planning". It was precisely
the interest of the indigenous elites of Italy, Spain and Gaul the main impulse
for the adoption of Latin. People in rural areas maitained for more time the
language, and was not particularly interested in learn Latin if this do not
reported any economical income.
Modern states, and most recent Empires have been interested in
"linguistical planning", but the simple projection of the "linguistical
behavior" of modern states to ancient states can be simply
misleading.