From: tgpedersen
Message: 23818
Date: 2003-06-25
>That is your interpretation of what 'one' means here. Why bot ask
> >> (one might say a "pidgin French"), and that the fascist
> >> linguistic policies following on from Grégoire's 1794 report
> >> ("Rapport sur la necessité et les moyens d'anéantir les patois
> >> et d'universaliser l'usage de la langue française")
>
> > Hm! Given their similar political situations, would you call
> > Catalan a "Spanish pidgin"?
>
> Miguel did not call Occitan "pidgin French", he just said some
> people might consider it erroneously as such.
>This was a theoryOnly happy to amuse you. Could you be more specific?
> characterizing also Italian dialects during Middle Ages and is,
> by the same token, false. The same applies to Catalan with
> respect to Spanish: it is not a pidgin but a language deriving
> from Latin and having close ties with Occitan and Spanish.
>
> As a general matter, you failed to produce any valid argument
> in order to support your theory that Romances are a kind of
> Latin pidgin/creole, offering only irelevent & false analogies.
> OTOH, you didn't give an answer to relevant part of critics of
> your position, you have just ignored them. That's not the usual
> approach in science and reminds me some funny stories which I
> won't mention here.
>