From: Miguel Carrasquer
Message: 23754
Date: 2003-06-23
>Piotr Gasiorowski wrote:There's only on equestion in teh above: "What do Meillet's informal and
>> What do Meillet's informal and obviously hyperbolic dicta have to do
>> with what I said about French inflectional morphology? The other
>> opinions you cited are equally irrelevant. The topic was the origin of
>> French, not linguistic snobbery or the social perception of French
>> dialects. The fact that speakers of Parisian French were reluctant to
>> regard the Midi varieties as truly French has absolutely nothing to do
>> with what we are discussing. Try to stick to the topic.
>>
>I find your question rhetorical.
>You speak about the morphologie andPiotr said: "French inflectional morphology is of Latin origin,
>gramair of Frnech being Latin. I guess Miguel can tell you more about.
>Ther I just will say as follow:More irrelevancies. Occitan, like French --and Romanian-- is a daughter
>
>Au XII ème siècle, l'occitan est langue littéraire, juridique et
>administrative, il côtoie le latin dans les textes religieux et
>scientifiques. La graphie et la grammaire sont une adaptation du latin".