Re: [tied] Thracian , summing up

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "P&G" <petegray@...> wrote:

> > >From Latin as Muttersprache to Protoromanian should be some 200-

300

> > years.
> ...> As analyst, do you expect to see the same language which in 2-

300 years

> > became ( supposed) an another language ( Latin > ProtoRomanian)

for not

> > changing in the next 1000 or 1500 years ?
>
> Alex, why not look at what happened in French, Spanish, Italian

etc. If you

> date your "proto-Romanian" to about 600 AD, what is going on with

the

> western Romance languages at that time?
>
> And guess what you discover? Charlemagne has to ban the

pronunciation

> /Santer/ (roughly like modern French) and insist on /kantare/ for

the

> "Latin" word cantare. The situation you find unbelievable is close

to what

> we see in the West.
>
> You know that Latin is itself constantly changing, and the Romance

languages

> derive from the spoken form, not the classical form. The roots of

these

> languages go back to some time BC - so it's more time than you seem

to

> think.
>

I think I will be advocatus Alexi here: There are two types of events
in the history of any Romance language:

1) a pidginisation and creolisation phase, in which an adult
population learns the new language Latin

2) a phase of continuous and regular development after that (mostly)

Most accounts of Romance languages stress only type 2 developments.

Torsten