> > 2) In a Germanic people that was christianised by
> > Greek-speaking
> > clergy. When did that happen?
>
> *****GK: The inclusion os a word in a language does
> not require some systematic process of
> Christianization. What about the groups which settled
> in the Eastern Empire after 453. They could have
> maintained contacts with northern kinsmen. But really,
> there is no need (and probably no possibility) of
> determining the exact manner of the transmission. We
> have the result, and it is indubitable.*****
> >
I never doubted the result and you are redefining my question. I
wasn't asking for the exact manner of transmission, just how it might
possibly have happened.
So, in your scenario, the Germani pick up a Greek word in pre-
Christian times, and later, when they are christianised by Romance
and Irish monks, these don't change the terminology?
Seems BTW that Slavic 'cerkov' might be used to establishe a terminus
ante quem; when did the corresponding palatalisation take place?
And BTW do you have any news on the Ringknaufschwerter? The reason is
ask is I found one article in which a Dolch (dagger) with such a ring-
shaped pommel is called typically Sarmatian, and in another those
swords are found in large amounts in Thuringia and Denmark (and a few
in Sweden).
Torsten