From: Jens Elmegaard Rasmussen
Message: 22053
Date: 2003-05-18
>This was actually meant as a concession, a point where I figured I could
> Jens:
>
> >If the whole form *so is identical with the nominative marker and so
> >fulfils that function too, it is understandable that there is no further
> >"ending" sitting on the end of the form.
>
> No. You're on the wrong path. Let me guide you back.
>I am willing to learn. Would you be so kind as to mention, say, six out of
> The reason why *so has no ending is also because it was undeclinable.
> It was a particle without case ending of any kind. To put a case
> ending on it would be sacriledge.
>
> In contrast, as I've repeatedly said, *to- was clearly declined. It was
> coincidently given the inanimate ending to boot. I think that the
> major factor here is declinability that caused the lop-sided system
> we see.
>
> Regardless, this doesn't change the obvious conclusion that *-s and
> *-d must derive from *so- and *to- and my declinability arguement
> is justified because it is what we see...
>
> So where is the problem? This is much different from merely
> assuming that a single *o indicates voicing. This is a much more
> obscure conclusion with many other probabilities of somewhat
> equal value that are being ignored.
>
> On the other hand, there is no other explanation for the origin of
> *-s versus *-d except via *so- and *to-.