From: Piotr Gasiorowski
Message: 21551
Date: 2003-05-05
----- Original Message -----
From: "alex_lycos" <altamix@...>
To: <cybalist@yahoogroups.com>
Sent: Monday, May 05, 2003 10:26 PM
Subject: [tied] Padus
> padus (-i)= Harzbaum, Pechtanne: gall. nach Metrodor. Sceps. bei Plin.
> nat 3,122 zur Erklärung des FN "Padus".
> Kretschmer suppose the word should be celtic and from the samme root
> with the Greek (ark.) "Padoessa", from /with "pedos" = a tree.
> A tree is not grass, even if the grass is tall enough.
> Seems more appropiate to Alb. "pyll" and "pãdure" as the Latin
> "paludem", semanticaly and phoneticaly.
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Greek "pedos" meaning 'tree'?? (and if not Greek, what word is it?)
How can a Celtic cognate of a root in *p- begin with *p- if the loss of *p- is the surest diagnostic of being Celtic? If <padi:> 'pitch-pines' is Gaulish, its *p- can't continue pre-Celtic *p-.
'An uncultivated place with lush vegetation' is what connects the Classical meaning of <palu:d-> with that of Balkan Latin *padu:l-. The metathesis is attested elsewhere in Romance, so *padu:l- certainly existed with both meanings. Your "Po connection" creates more problems than it is supposed to clarify.
Piotr