Re: [tied] Re: vulgar Latin?

Miguel:

>LaryngealS (pl.) had died out. Perhaps the reflex of a single merged
>laryngeal remained (see e.g. Beekes' Avestan grammar, where
>he reconstructs phonemic /?/ in hiatus [altough you can have hiatus
>without glottal stop]). The pronunciation of this single laryngeal
>is highly unlikely to have been a voiceless velar (or uvular)
>fricative.

Alright. Just checking. Perhaps I'm thinking pre-IIr.


- gLeN


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