From: Piotr Gasiorowski
Message: 21522
Date: 2003-05-04
----- Original Message -----
From: "Miguel Carrasquer" <mcv@...>
To: <cybalist@yahoogroups.com>
Sent: Sunday, May 04, 2003 11:05 PM
Subject: Re: [tied] Re: vulgar Latin?
> If you accept Beekes' arguments for its continued presence up until the composition of the Gatha's, [h] becomes a bit of a problem, as Avestan already has a [h], which *is* reflected in the spelling, of different origin (*s).
I was thinking of PIIr., of course. The Gathic intervocalic reflex was simply hiatus, with or without a glottal catch. If *[?] was there, it did not contrast with anything, so there's no reason to regard it as a phoneme.
Piotr