Re: [tied] Proto-Albanian

On Sat, 03 May 2003 15:35:25 +0200, alex_lycos <altamix@...>
wrote:

>Miguel Carrasquer wrote:
>> Wrong. Latin /ks/ only became /ss/ in Italy. In Balkan Romance, it
>> gives /fs/ in Albanian and /ps/ in Romanian. In Western Romance, it
>> gives /ys^/ or /ys/, alanlogous to /kt/, which gives /tt/ in Italian,
>> /ft/ in Albanian, /pt/ in Romanian and /yt/ in the West. The
>> development was probably /kt/, /ks/ > /xt/, /xs/ with spirantization
>> of the /k/, then in Italy /xt/ > /ht/ > /tt/, in the West /xt/ > /çt/
>>> /yt/, and in the East /xt/ > /ft/ > /pt/ (unlike what I suggested in
>> my previous message)
>
>
>1)The group "cs" is mentained in ?Roma in republican period; in the
>provinces there has been already innovates, this group becoming "ss"
>(coxim= cossim, vixi=vissi, maximile= masimile, uxorem=usorem,
>etc.)(apud Rosetti)

Well, it didn't become /ss/ in the Gaulish, Iberian or Eastern
provinces.

>On another hand, the "ps" is rarely represented in Romanian from the
>Latin "x", but it is represented trough "s".
>
>maxilla > masea, exit= iesit, laxare > lasa etc, etc etc.

Yes. This was already explained to you. Immediately before the
accent, /ks/ gives Romanian /s/ and Italian /s^/ (written <sc>),
instead of /ps/ and /ss/, respectively. A special Eastern Romance
development.

>About the "modhulle" and "mazare".
>The plant which is to find by Dioscoride is written with "z". "mouzola".
>Do you expect the Dacian "z" gave an Albanian "dh"? It seems more
>probably that the "dh" from Albanian here is older.

And how do you expect a Greek or Latin author would write the sound
/ð/?

>It is just too see if the
>Albanian "dh" is from an PIE "d" or from an PIE "g'".

Albanian /ð/ can be from PIE *d, *dh, *g^ or *g^h.


=======================
Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
mcv@...