From: Miguel Carrasquer
Message: 21464
Date: 2003-05-02
>thank you Piotr. I came to this question because of the Miguel's wordsThe situation with Albanian and Romanian is comparable to that of
>regarding the Alb/Rom "avull/abur":
>Miguel's sentence:
>"A root *h2ap- would not give Albanian av(-ull) or Rom. (through
>pre-Albanian) abur(e)".
>That would imply that until the Late Roman Period the Albanians and
>Romanians have had common conntacts and the Romanians got these common
>words with Albanians from the Proto-Albanians.
>Romanian became a Romance, made a lot of changes of the Latin words forIt's not true.
>becomming what actualy is Romanian.
>Albanian too, developed in its own way for being what actually Albanian
>language is.
>And here is here. These common words, they are in the most cases
>identicaly phonologicaly. And this is what makes me wonder. Why the same
>treatment for these common words and a different treatment of the Latin
>words in both languages, the words in each language having today for the
>"inherited" Latin elements an another foneticaly aspect.
>Which should be the logic here?