Re: [tied] Proto-Albanian

Piotr Gasiorowski wrote:

> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "alex_lycos" <altamix@...>
> To: <cybalist@yahoogroups.com>
> Sent: Friday, May 02, 2003 6:16 PM
> Subject: [tied] Proto-Albanian
>
>
>> which is the period of time when one speaks about "Proto-Albanian"?
>
> Technically speaking, Proto-Albanian is defined as the most recent
> common ancestor of the Geg and Tosk dialects (i.e., a language in
> which all the shared innovations of Geg and Tosk had already
> occurred). It's difficult to date it in absolute terms, since
> (pending the publication of the recently discovered Old Albanian
> text, which I hope will not turn out to be a forgery) the oldest
> example of written Albanian comes from the 15th century. In practice,
> I suppose the approximate identification of the Proto-Albanian period
> with the interval between the late Roman period and the beginning of
> the second millennium would be acceptable to most linguists.
> Proto-Albanian would thus overlap chronologically late Common Slavic,
> late Proto-Romance and the earlies forms of Romanian. Any
> intermadiate language between PIE and Proto-Albanian may be referred
> to as pre-Albanian
>
> Piotr

thank you Piotr. I came to this question because of the Miguel's words
regarding the Alb/Rom "avull/abur":
Miguel's sentence:
"A root *h2ap- would not give Albanian av(-ull) or Rom. (through
pre-Albanian) abur(e)".
That would imply that until the Late Roman Period the Albanians and
Romanians have had common conntacts and the Romanians got these common
words with Albanians from the Proto-Albanians.
Romanian became a Romance, made a lot of changes of the Latin words for
becomming what actualy is Romanian.
Albanian too, developed in its own way for being what actually Albanian
language is.
And here is here. These common words, they are in the most cases
identicaly phonologicaly. And this is what makes me wonder. Why the same
treatment for these common words and a different treatment of the Latin
words in both languages, the words in each language having today for the
"inherited" Latin elements an another foneticaly aspect.
Which should be the logic here?