I said:
>So you actually think that it is more logical to assume an
>"ultimate accent stage" when the accusative case, which we can
>both agree is an ancient suffix, VIOLATES your rule for ALL root
>nouns?!
Miguel contradicts logic:
>It doesn't, not for the relevant stage I was talking about.
>
>The strong cases (*pods, *podm, later *po:ds, *podm.) were
>monosyllabic,
And how many languages operate such that *podm may be monosyllabic??
Certainly only handfuls. Is this a likely rule even if it is
possible? No. You know it's not likely. It's something you dreams
out of your hat again.
Regardless of what you babble, my theory is better under Occam's
Razor than what you can possibly dream in your crazy imaginative
head of yours because I'm not pleading with bizarre sound rules.
Piotr, tell him why your name has no bearing on his crazy rule.
- gLeN
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