From: tgpedersen
Message: 21144
Date: 2003-04-21
>usually
> Peter recently states on the Tychicus thread:
> >Latin verbs with -a- vocalism have a number of different origins,
> >developing the -a- within Italic. There's work to be done there,someone!
>instances of
> And to this, I'd add that there is work to be done still on
> uncoloured *a in PIE.probably
>
> I just realized that I'm probably wrong about *bHo:g-. Actually, it
> _is_ derived from the o-grade of *bHeh- and thus we must write*bHoh-g-.
> But now, that is an interesting conclusion because we naturallywonder:
> What is *-g- supposed to convey, why do we find the o-grade in thestem,
> and how does this relate to my statement that some instances of *aare
> caused by voiced labial phonemes preventing a normal pre-IE changeof
> earlier *a to *o?from *bHeh-
>
> Now I think I get it. I'm now claiming that *bHoh-g- is derived
> and that it is the product of a stative nominal stem being attachedwith
> an intensive marker *-g- which derives from the emphatic enclitic*ge. We
> then can observe a series of these "intensive"-derived stems.Another
> example of an intensive stem would be *bHux-g- "to flee, fly away"from
> the secondary meaning "to rise" of the verb *bHeux- "to grow upfrom the
> ground". (Or have I overanalyzed these verbs?)with a
>
> If this is so, it shows that an IE verb could be produced simply
> noun phrase without any verbal stem by using the interveningenclitic *ge.
> This conclusion in turn validates the origin I claim for *?eg(-o:/-om) "I",
> which is to be properly understood as literally "my being here; asfor me"
> from the synthesis of *?e "here", *ge [emphatic], and a 1ps ending.rule that
>
> Now that we have that straightened out, why did I mention the *a-
> I'm constantly revising? Well, the new rule goes like this:*a's
>
> Instances of uncoloured *a in PIE derive from the failure of the
> general Late IE vowel shift (*a > *o) to operate on any short
> that neighboured voiced labial phonemes (*m, *b, *bH, *w) withinthe
> default stem of a paradigm.mean
>
> What does that mean by "within the default stem of a paradigm"? I
> to say that if a verb was inheirantly aorist like *dehW- "give",then the
> default stem is the aorist stem *dehW- (not the derived durativestem
> *didehW-). Obviously. So this rule can only apply to *dehW-, not toits
> *didehW- or to *dedohW-.
>
> So now, let's imagine a stem which is naturally in the o-grade in
> simple default paradigm. Now let's imagine that we are speakingearly
> Late IE (eLIE) where *a has not yet become *o. Here then, we mustthink
> of a verb which is naturally in the "a-grade" instead. Now let'sfurther
> imagine that this eLIE stem of the natural shape *CaC-, whichnormally
> develops into PIE as *CoC-, is something like **mag-. Since *aneighbours
> a voiced labial in this example, *a will not become *o, and theresult
> is PIE **mag- instead of **mog-. However, if we imagine a pretendeLIE
> durative e-grade stem **meg-, it will develop the normal perfectthe
> **memog- (with *o, not *a). This is because we are now speaking of a
> derived form which depends on the simple stem **meg-, rather than
> simple stem itself on which the above rule on *a applies.**bHah-g-
>
> Got it? So, back to *bHoh-g-, we would think that we should have
> until we realize that *bHoh- would be a derived stative form of thesimple
> stem *bHeh-. Therefore, the *a rule does not apply.in PIE
>
> This rule would give insight into the origins of all a-grade stems
> that do not appear to be the result of uvular colouring of *e nextto *x
> or *q.Bomhard has
>
> Additional thoughts anyone?
>