Re: [tied] Ablaut and accent

I'm sure a lot of information is missing, but somehow I don't feel driven
towards Indo-Tyrrhenian to go look for it. I find it impressive how much
is clear without that help, and depressing how much became unclear
when I occasionally got it.

Jens

On Sun, 20 Apr 2003, Glen Gordon wrote:

>
> Jens:
> >The rule, first established by others on a purely descriptive
> >basis, is the natural consequence of the rule of initial accent
> >I claim to have found for a prestage of the protolanguage.
>
> When you finally accept an intermediary "penultimate accent"
> stage for Old/Mid IE (proven by alternations like *?es-t-i versus
> *?s-ent-i), this whole ablaut thing will be so much clearer. In
> my theory, the initial accent stage is all the way back in
> Indo-Tyrrhenian, so I can see why you're so confused about ablaut.
> You're missing a couple thousand years of accent development.
>
>
> - gLeN
>
>
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