[tied] Re: bake

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "P&G" <petegray@...> wrote:

> >Greek 'pho:gein', Lat 'fo:veo' (< perf. fo:vi), German bu:k. It

seems

> >the o-grade is long.
>
> Sorry, the /o/ is short in Latin. Long only in the perfect. The

perfect is

> probably *fov-vi > fo:vi.

Apologies. Isn't the -v- a glide (-w-) between two vowels?
And where does the -k- in 'focus' come from?

> This means it is a standard causative (o grade + -ye- suffix) as in

moneo

> and others. The only question is the medial /v/ in Latin. This

is usually

> taken from *gWH (e.g. Sihler section 46.2, foveo < *dHogWH; Meiser

section

> 74,10 foveo < *dHogWH-eye causative to PIE *dHegWH "to burn").
>
> This would make Latin foveo cognate to II dahati, and not to Greek

pho:gein.

>
> >If the verb stem is *bH&g- < *bHh1g-, how does
> >it ablaut?
>
> *bH&g, *bHeh1g > *bhe:g, *bHoh1g > *bHo:g

But what we have in German seems to be from
*bH&g, *bHoh1g > *bho:g, *bH&g

Where do you see any Gmc **be:k- "bake"?

Torsten