From: tgpedersen
Message: 20465
Date: 2003-03-28
>and
> Torsten:
> >I don't get it. Do you understand 'creole' and 'IE' as mutually
> >exclusive?
>
> That's right, you don't get it. French is mostly attributable to IE
> can be firmly traced back to Latin. There _are_ creoles languagesbased
> partly on IE languages so, no, it's not mutually exclusive. Butstandard
> French and "creole" _is_ mutually exclusive.Because?
>doesn't make
> >And BTW French is full of Germanic loanwords.
>
> Every language has loans. The fact that a language has loans
> it a creole. Since French underwent a long evolutionary processthat can
> be traced right back to Latin, we know that it's not some suddenlycreated
> language that popped out of nowhere because of contact between someAh, a math riddle. Now I get it. X = Low Latin.
> Language X (and perhaps also Language Y, Z, etc) and Frankish.
>So? It seems you are making a distinction between slowly
> So French is not a creole at all.
>
> English is also not a creole for the same reasons. We can trace itsslow
> evolution back to Germanic and French loans don't hinder us fromdoing
> this.For the so-reason, apparently.
> As for Japanese, I have to admit that creolisation isn't entirelyenough
> impossible when I think on it. The problem is that we don't know
> about its long, unwritten prehistory to be absolutely certain.No, it seems it's a precondition for you to consider it a creole.
>