Daniel J. Milton wrote:
> Looking for "Bellagines" on the Web, I find one extract from
> Getica XI with the word, plus several discussions in Romanian of
> Jordanes (one of which I suppose was Alex's source) and an English
> translation of a Romanian translation of a book in Latin by a Swede
> published in 1687, which quotes earlier writers' comments on
> Jordanes' "Bellagines" or "Bylagines."
> At the end of the triple translation things are pretty incoherent
> (and who knows how much sense they made originally?) but if anyone's
> interested, look at
> http://www.dacia.org/lundius/clundius-eng.pdf
> Chapter III section 3 (on p. 61)
> Dan
my question have had as basis a comparative expresion.
There is known in the Midle Ages teh so called "Jux Vallahorum". I
asked myself why not a Jux Serbororum or Bulgarorum or Hungarororum or
something like this. Then I remembered about the stories about the
dacians the the Leges Bellagines.
We do know the laws in Jux Vallahorum but we do not know anything about
the laws in Leges Bellagines.
I guess one year ago I should have not been able to make a connection
bellag= pelag= vallax and it should be hard to demonstrate there is no
connection as well as it should be hrad to demonstrate that beside
phonological there should be an another relationship.
Here our specialist in Latin or Greek wil maybe help.
Jordanes use "Leges Belagines". Let us accept leges= the latin word
lex/legis
1)the fem. legis what a plural form should have had in Latin?
2) accepting bellag= name of a folk, just for the sake of the
demonstration, how should appear here the sufix "-nes" in Latin?