In my postings I neglected George's question 1).
If 'tyrannos' was Hattian or Hittite, and entered Greek at the
time of Archilochos, and the Philistines were Mycenaean Greeks, then
no, 'seren' should not be the same as 'tyrannos.'
Of course there's an alternative: if 'seren' is the same
as 'tyrannos', then the Philistines might have been Hattian or
Hittite and not Greeks.
It all seems to me a slender reed, if you're trying to draw major
conclusions!
Dan
> > --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, george knysh <gknysh@...>
wrote:
> > > There are claims that the Philistine term for "Lord"
> > > =SEREN is allegedly the same as Hittite TARWANNAS,
> > > SARAWANAS and Greek TYRANNOS. (1) is this correct? (2)
> > > is there an IE etymoilogy for it, or is it non-IE?