The last comment of mine below (Lydian < Hittite, so I.-E.
etym.) was rather pointless, since you already gave the Hittite
TARWANNAS. Anyway, another run through my book shelf and I've come
up with something in O. R. Gurney "The Hittites" 1952. I
assume 'Tarwannas'and 'tabarna' are simply variant
transliterations. If not, this is totally irrelevant and someone
please tell me.
"The kings of the Old Kingdom style themselves 'Great King,
tabarna'. .. Tabarna is probably nothing but the name of the ancient
forebear Labarnas in a disguised form. ...The variation in the
initial letter would indicate that the original (Hattian?) form of
the name contained a peculiar consonant which the Indo-European
Hittites were unable to pronounce." So if it's Hattian it should
NOT have an I.-E. etymology.
--- In
cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Daniel J. Milton" <dmilt1896@...>
wrote:
> A. Andrewes "The Greek Tyrants" 1956 gives some information.
The first surviving occurrence is in the poetry of Archilochus "I
do not care for the wealth of Gyges ... nor do I desire a great
tyranny." Hippias of Elis wrote that the word was first used in
Greek in Archilochus' time, and Euphorion (if I am following
Andrewes' footnotes correctly) "probably with this same passage in
mind, asserts that the term tyrannos was first applied to Gyges....
Probably, then, the poet meant his new word to describe the kingdom
of Gyges, and it is possible that the word itself was Lydian."
Lydian was a descendant of one of the older Hittite languages,
so (if this is correct) there is likely to be an I.-E. etymology.
Dan Milton
>
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, george knysh <gknysh@...> wrote:
> > There are claims that the Philistine term for "Lord"
> > =SEREN is allegedly the same as Hittite TARWANNAS,
> > SARAWANAS and Greek TYRANNOS. (1) is this correct? (2)
> > is there an IE etymoilogy for it, or is it non-IE?