From: alex_lycos
Message: 19607
Date: 2003-03-05
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "alex_lycos" <altamix@...> wrote:how did the intervocalic "b">"v" and did not sincoped, probably in the
>> richard.wordingham@... wrote:
>>> I'd sooner believe a back formation from Latin melior 'better'!
>>> Initial b > m is *very* rare, though /?b/ > /m/ is attested. I'd
>>> sooner attribute the /b/ in 'Tibiscum' to a heavy cold or to the
>>> influence of 'Tiber', but other factors, such as popular
> etymology,
>>> may be responsible
>>>
>>> Richard
>>
>>
>> Initialy yes..
>> I thought now at Latin words "mugire" and "bucina"
>> BTW the latin "bucinum" should have given Rom. "bucium"
>> Was final "m" mute or not in the Eastern Romance?
>
> It was already pretty close to being mute in Classical Latin - it
> didn't protect vowels from elision in poetry. If you see a Latin
> noun cited in a form ending in '-m', that just [part of] the
> masculine/feminine accusative singular ending in all declensions
>
> It's supposed to have completely vanished in Romanian, so I'm not
> sure how it's been restored in the 1s of the imperfect in Romanian.
> Someone said it came from the 1p under the influence of the 1s
> imperfect of the verb 'to have', but how did the 1s of the verb 'to
> have' retain it, if it did?
>
> Richard