From: bmscotttg
Message: 19295
Date: 2003-02-26
> > > Since we have determined that English /d/ is not voicelessGo back and read the earlier messages. I'm not going to waste
> > > (in most dialects),
> > No, we haven't. The evidence presented here has clearly
> > shown: that there is little or no voicing of English /d-/ in
> > some of the most common dialects; that voice onset in
> > English /d-/ typically occurs very late, somewhere in a very
> > short interval around the release; and that even in the
> > absence of voicing the vocal folds are maintained in a
> > position appropriate for voicing.
> This is a perfect example of why our discussions ramble on
> interminably with little progress on the question at hand.
> No evidence has clearly been presented here "there is ... no
> voicing of English /d-/ in some of the *most common* dialects".
> At best, it occurs in some substandard speech.RP (and a variety of non-Northern British dialects), and -- since
> Now, if what I have written above is NOT true, name just one
> common dialect where it is true. Just one!
> > > this description is inaccurate at best, ignorant at worst.No, it isn't, and I did not in fact say that it was. It is
> > >> E.g., <døkk> 'dark' (nom.sing.fem.) [tøhk].
> > > If Icelandic initial /d/ sounds like English /d/, then why
> > > is it being notated as "t"?
> > > It looks like Icelandic initial [d] is simple an
> > > unaspirated /t/.
> > You make my point.
> Hardly. English initial _d_ is not simply an unaspirated /t/.