From: Piotr Gasiorowski
Message: 19007
Date: 2003-02-22
----- Original Message -----
From: <kalyan97@...>
To: <cybalist@yahoogroups.com>
Sent: Saturday, February 22, 2003 2:24 AM
Subject: [tied] Re: "Will the 'real' linguist please stand up?"
> I am citing from SS Misra (p. 19):
>
> The form FU *porc'as for and beside *p;ors'as, 'piglet' should be
> derived from *pars'as rather than parc'as Indo-Iranian form normally
> reconstructed as such.
Why? And if *pars'as is "Rigvedic", why is the word absent from the Rigveda? ;-)
Piotr