From: tgpedersen
Message: 18846
Date: 2003-02-17
> > I am not a linguist, but might there not be many languages having1) Let us assume the word is Celtic. What does that tell us of the
> > mori or similar for "sea" ("mori" given here
> > http://groups.yahoo.com/group/cybalist/files/PIE%20roots/PIE%20-%
> > 20English.htm as a PIE root), and mar- for "dead", so how sure is
> > it that this has to be Celtic ?
>
> Looking through Pokorny's IEW, I do not believe that any Germanic
> dialects of the period would have had a root *mori- meaning
> specifically "sea" (it looks as if PIE *mori would have given a
> Germanic *mari-), and only Celtic languages are listed as having a -
> u- derivative (*mr-uo) of *mer- "die".
>
> - Chris Gwinn