Re: [tied] Laryngeal theory as an unnatural

Miguel:

>Because none of the roots in question beginning with, say, *ma-
>show any evidence of ever having had a laryngeal (none of them
>have zero grade forms with /i/ in Indo-Iranian). On the other
>hand, for some of them it's easy to identify an e-grade counterpart:

What generally accepted linguistic process would explain a
change of *mo to *ma? (And please don't invent one of your own!)
Additionally, what other languages demonstrate a similar change?


- gLeN


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