Re: [tied] PIE *ueid, *uid

From: Piotr Gasiorowski
Message: 17363
Date: 2003-01-03

----- Original Message -----
From: <alexmoeller@...>
To: <>
Sent: Friday, January 03, 2003 5:14 PM
Subject: Re: [tied] PIE *ueid, *uid

> But returning to PIE, it seems that the form "uie" > "v" and the "ui" >
> "u" or "i".

There ain't no such development, and no PIE "uie". (Classical Attic and later) Greek has oid-/eid-/id- just because it lost the initial *w-. Some Ancient Greek dialects had woid-/weid-/wid- instead.

> Can this be explained trough the fact that "i" in "uid" is not a full vowel but a half vowel?

If you mean PIE *wid- or Lat. vid-, [i] is a fully syllabic phonetic vowel in both cases, and the initial segment is a semivowel like English /w/.