From: Andrew Howey
Message: 17120
Date: 2002-12-11
Hello, all:
I am not a professional linguist, but, based on the practical language training I've had (outlined in my introduction to the group (subject "new member", dated 12/03/2002) (4 years learning/studing German, 3 years practical 24/7 usage, and 3 years learning/learning Russian, and 8 years practical 24/7 usage)), "I am here" is a concrete, declarative statement, whereas "my (being) here" is more of a conditional/subjunctive statement -- it indicates some sort of depency for that individual to be present -- not the same thing, in either Germanic or Slavic. I've also had some limited exposure to Romance as well (1st yr French and Italian), and conditional/subjunctive and declarative are quite different in semantic meaning in all three language groups. "I would be", or to use the example given, "my (being) here)" does not have the same meaning as "I am here", as indicated above.
Andy Howey
Glen Gordon <glengordon01@...> wrote:
//snip//
Regardless, "my (being) here" and "I am here" signify
the same thing anyways, and both interpretations justify *ego:
Pronouns signifying "This body", "on this side" or even "this
reporter" have nothing to do with Miguel's bold assertion that
a demonstrative _alone_ can replace the 1ps pronoun.
I'm also unconcerned with whether it is possible for *-ge
to erode to *-g. Afterall, surely syllabic *-ge is the original
form anyway. What I'm concerned with is the overall justification
for *eg, over *ego:, being the original 1ps.
It's very simple. "I am here" (*ego:/*egom) as 1ps is supported
by example while "here" (*eg) is not. Therefore, *ego: (or *egom)
demonstrates the original semantics and form of the pronoun.
Until more weight can be added to Miguel's position, I see
nothing to make one think otherwise.
- gLeN
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