Re: the glottalic theory

--- In cybalist@..., "tgpedersen" <tgpedersen@...> wrote:

> --- In cybalist@..., Jens Elmegaard Rasmussen <jer@...> wrote:

> >... Thus, where the Old Norse
> wordform
> > is already known, the etymological value of the Danish stød is

zero.

> >
>
> That is obviously true if the occurrence of voiced vs unvoiced

liquid

> is derivable from something earlier.

What's the issue here? Where does voicing seem diachronically
unpredictable?

> BTW why do my postings to Austronesian disappear into thin air?

Maybe you need to be logged in and post them through the menus rather
then e-mail.

Richard.