Re: [tied] Re: Lith.

From: Jens Elmegaard Rasmussen
Message: 16079
Date: 2002-10-08

That way, i.e. rañkomis (with n you can actually get the normal notation
through the system), meaning that the "diphthongal sequence" -an- has a
rising tone giving tonal prominence to the second part, and I take it, a
shorter /a/ than in e.g. lángas where the opposite is the case (prominent
a, shorter n, tone falling). These "sonant diphthongs" (of the type aR
before consonant or zero) work the same as other diphthongs and indeed as
monophthongs in the algebra of Saussure's Law. That is why we have
rankà and rankàs; both of these cases are underlyingly barytone
with accent on the initial, so it is the acuteness of the endings *-a: and
*-a:Ns (surfacing in the definite forms of adjectives, as sausó-ji,
sausáNs-jas 'the dry') that has caused the accent to move to the second
syllable here. Then one would expect the same to happen in rañkoms, -omis,
-ose. Note that the phonotactic shape of rank- has no part in this, the
same accent type is displayed by e.g. blusà 'flea', sulà 'birch sap',
vietà 'place' and some others. Illic^-Svityc^ found they were all
root-accented in PIE (and did not develop acutes because the root vowels
were short).


On Tue, 8 Oct 2002, Richard Wordingham wrote:

> --- In cybalist@..., Jens Elmegaard Rasmussen <jer@...> wrote:
> > No, the type válgyti is opposed to darýti (acute on y, in case it
> doesn't
> > show at your end), so why should ran~komis be barred from becoming
> > +rankómis except by analogy? I'm making up this rule, it's common
> opinion.
> How is ran~komis pronounced?
> Richard.
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