Re: [tied] Morphology (10/20)

From: Miguel Carrasquer
Message: 14987
Date: 2002-09-03

On Tue, 03 Sep 2002 02:42:13 +0000, "Glen Gordon" <glengordon01@...>

>>>Perhaps you didn't understand the first time. It doesn't matter
>>>whether it's a direct or indirect marker. It's unlikely for an
>>>ending that starts off being exclusive to the 1ps to spread to
>>>all persons.
>>*Except* the first...
>... Which makes even less sense if *-m is supposed to be a 1rst person
>marker! This is the opposite of sense.

Look at the Mordvin grid, stupid.

>>Do we have originally personal endings used to express temporal
>>didtinctions? Yes: the 1st person object series, -samak, -saman, -samiz',
>>-samiz' [...], incorporates a 3rd. person singular marker *-sa- which is
>>used in the present tense only. The perfect has -mik, -mim, -miz', -miz'
>This example has NOTHING to do with what you just claimed for IE. Here,
>*-sa- is being used exclusively for the ***3rd person***.

Oh yeah? Please explain.

Miguel Carrasquer Vidal