Question re a Germanic Name (Suartuas)

From: x99lynx@...
Message: 14721
Date: 2002-08-29

Hi, Everyone -
I've pryed myself away from some other, rather serious obliagations to drop
this note. I still read the list when I can and I'm still impressed by the
knowledge arrayed here. This is one of the best list on historical subject
matter on the web, because of some very astute members and a very astute
moderator (Piotr is still moderator, isn't he?)

Here's a quick question. Any help would be deeply appreciated.

In the 6th century, I believe, the Byzantines send one of the Herulians
living in Byzantium to lead a leaderless group of Herulians living north of
the Danube. This is according to Procopius, who gives the fellow's name as

There is a question as to what Suartuas could mean and what it origin may be.
This is one of those circumstances where coeval Indo-European languages of
the dim past may offer alternative explanations.

One explanation given by someone else was:
----"Swerting" looks pretty probable. The "-as" suffix often does in Greek
what it often does in Germanic, i.e. it forms a patronymic adjective. This
makes the _-u-_ rather problematic, but it could easily be epenthetic,
helping to attach the Greek suffix to the Germanic stem.----

This doesn't look right to me. -uas in Greek is rare. there is no need for
a -u- to attach -as to -t- ending (Goth <swart>), at least not in Greek where
-tas is a common occurence.

I'm wondering if the -tuas- is not the Gothic suffix -<th>wa, rendered in
Procopius' Greek. Making a substantive out of Goth. <swaran>, to swear, take
an oath, pledge. But does this violate Verner's Law. I.e., would it be
Swari<th>wa-s (>Suratuas). This assumes that "Herulian" is East Germanic and
just like Gothic. And what about the -s ending? Is it a gender correction?

Regards to all,
Steve Long