Re: the slavic influence in Balcans

--- In cybalist@..., Miguel Carrasquer <mcv@...> wrote:

> On Thu, 1 Aug 2002 14:32:05 +0200, alexmoeller@... wrote:

> No. That Romanian and Albanian have retained the words in their
> original (Proto-Slavic) shape, while they have been altered in
> (South-)Slavic itself is not an argument at all for them being loans
> from some Balkanic source into Slavic. That's as absurd as claiming
> that "Caesar" must be a borrowing from Germanic into Latin, because
> all the Romance languages have undergone the change kai- > ke- > ce-
> (and Germanic hasn't).
>
>
> =======================
> Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
> mcv@...

I've seen someone somewhere relating the "conservativeness" of
various Romance laguages to the time of the conquest of the province
in question. The only Romance language to keep /ke/ is Sardic.
Sardinia was conquered by the Romans in the 3rd century BCE as one of
their first provinces. So why Germanic "kaiser"? The alternative
solution is to assume that /ke/ -> /c^e/ spread geographically in the
Roman empire, but why should Sardinia be isolated from that?

Torsten