Re: [tied] Re: On Non-Linguistic IE Languages

--- ikpeylough <ikpeylough@...> wrote:

> --- In cybalist@..., george knysh <gknysh@...>
> wrote:
> >
> > ****GK: ...... It would be even more helpful if
> you
> > demonstrated on purely linguistic grounds how it
> was
> > possible for so many IE families to arise in the
> first
> > let's say 2500 years of the saga, and why we
> haven't
> > seen anything similar occur in the last 2500
> years.
> > Something went wrong with "purely linguistic"
> > dynamics?****
>
> The distinct families didn't arise in the first 2500
> years, only
> distinct _languages_. The process is the same in
> both periods. It's
> only the _additional_ 2500 years of differentiation
> that creates the
> families, retroactively.
>
> IKP

*****GK: Of course not. Whether or not there were
linguists capable of classifying languages into
internally related related clusters at the time
(similar though not identical to the clusters of 2002
AD) the differences between e.g. Greek, Hittite and
Indo-Aryan were already enormous in 1500 BC, and an
"Anatolian" cluster certainly existed. After the
appearance of proto-Germanic, proto-Baltic and
proto-Slavic (all some time before year zero) I see no
further "creation" of such clusters, just further
differentiations within them.*****

>
>
>

__________________________________________________
Do You Yahoo!?
Yahoo! Games - play chess, backgammon, pool and more
http://games.yahoo.com/