From: Piotr Gasiorowski
Message: 13185
Date: 2002-04-10
----- Original Message -----From: kalyan97Sent: Wednesday, April 10, 2002 5:36 PMSubject: [tied] Re: Why India?Let us assume that the 'I' in the 'PIE' speakers were ocean-going people from GKCC through the Persian Gulf, the Tigris-Euphrates valleys and up the Wahinda-Mihran-Nara-Hakra-Ghaggar-S'utudri_-Dr.s.advati-A_paya-Manus.a bodies of waters, then the startling
statement made by Michael Donne provides the key linguistic argument: that the Masica's language X is indeed Vedic. Yes, Vedic as might have been spoken by the speakers of the Bharuch, Bharu Kaks.a (Maha_bha_rata) or Bhr.gu-ks.etra (Bhr.gu zone, say, GKCC).
To explain what Piotr wants, how about a scenario like this? From GKCC to Mesopotamia onto Anatolia; from Mesopotamia across land through Elam; from GKCC to Mehrgarh up the River Sindhu and returning to Dholavira in the Gulf of Kutch; from Dholavira to comingle with Indo-Iranian speakers. Let the archaeologists look for the horse bone traces across this meandering. Let linguists unravel Masica's language X [I say, Munda-Vedic with some support from Kuiper] or Misra Proto-Sanskrit cousin of Hock's PIE speakers.
Why India? Because she is there.