[tied] Re: Misra, Bryant and Indigenous-Nationalist Conflation

--- In cybalist@..., "Dean_Anderson" <dean_anderson@...> wrote:

> >Executed for decades and centuries? Poor scholars!
>
>
> Most of Hock's arguments weren't conclusive. All he did was provide
> examples where PIE *might* have been outside of India.
>
> EXCEPT:
>
> 1) The vowels -- see the thread "Sanskrit e, a, u"
> 2) The law of palatals
>
> These are very strong reasons and would need some serious
>linguistic
> arguments to refute them. I'd love to see someone try to enter that
> minefield. :-) It would be entertaining if nothing else.

They are indeed very strong reasons, but for what? How does the law
of palatals argue against PIE presence in India? Suppose it took
place there, after the non-II branches left?
As for "e, a, o", yes, I do read cybalist on a regular basis, in case
you were in doubt. I suggested re-introducing Cuny's old proposal
that the Ablaut vowel, traditionally rendered e/o/nothing should be
represented as ä/a/nothing, from which (but after palatalization)
there wouldn't be far to Indo-Iranian's a/a/nothing.

Torsten