From: Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
Message: 11047
Date: 2001-11-06
>On Sun, 4 Nov 2001 16:16:48 -0000, "P&G" <petegray@...>Especially since, as I forgot to mention, the whole thing may be an
>wrote:
>
>>>Following the Greek-Armenian-Slavic connection, one is tempted ...
>>
>>How realistic is the idea of a Greek-Armenian-Slavic connection without I-I?
>>(a) Greek-Armenian-I-I connections are well established. This suggests
>>Slavic does not have such strong links to Greek as I-I does.
>>And
>>(b) Greek shows no sign of satemisation, although Armenian, I-I and Slavic
>>do. This suggests Greek separates off while I-I and Slavic are still in
>>contact.
>>
>>Both of these would prima facie make a sprach-bund of Greek-Armenain-Slavic
>>without I-I rather unlikely, wouldn't they?
>
>One isogloss does not a Sprachbund make.