From: Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
Message: 11000
Date: 2001-11-05
>>Following the Greek-Armenian-Slavic connection, one is tempted ...One isogloss does not a Sprachbund make.
>
>How realistic is the idea of a Greek-Armenian-Slavic connection without I-I?
>(a) Greek-Armenian-I-I connections are well established. This suggests
>Slavic does not have such strong links to Greek as I-I does.
>And
>(b) Greek shows no sign of satemisation, although Armenian, I-I and Slavic
>do. This suggests Greek separates off while I-I and Slavic are still in
>contact.
>
>Both of these would prima facie make a sprach-bund of Greek-Armenain-Slavic
>without I-I rather unlikely, wouldn't they?